i would think the lim as x-->0 of f(x)/f(x) would be 1 regardless of what f(x) is. i am looking at a solution in the back of a calculus book and finding a solution of "limit doesn't exist." the function f(x) is sin(1/x). am i missing something?
i would think the lim as x-->0 of f(x)/f(x) would be 1 regardless of what f(x) is. i am looking at a solution in the back of a calculus book and finding a solution of "limit doesn't exist." the function f(x) is sin(1/x). am i missing something?