I am stuck on this problem. Could it be as simple as changing the (tanx)^2 to (secx)^2
and having the answer as (cosx)^2 - x?
Or is it much more complicated than that? Please help me with this.
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What you're saying is scary . . .
First of all: . . . . . . . . . as Liverpool suggested
Last edited by mr fantastic; Jan 28th 2011 at 04:43 AM.
Reason: Leave something for the OP to do.
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