Here's the question:
lim(x-->infinity)
One approach (that Wolfram Alpha used):
=square root of lim
(using L'hopital)
Another approach:
Using L'hopital:
which is our original question upside down.
Does this prove the limit is 1.
ie. if limit a/b = limit b/a does this mean the limit must equal 1?
Thanks
It should be:
So,
and does not exist
Fernando Revilla
No, you can't assume that. The formula that defines has sense on .When a function is given by a formula an the domain is not specified it is an universal convenious to apply the rule of the maximum domain i.e, , and topologically .
Fernando Revilla
Right.
Fernando Revilla
Right.
Fernando Revilla
Out of curiousity you are saying when infinity is printed in a limit in a Calculus text book, the book is implying the positive values only?
Also, my Calc text book isn't written in such a manner. If there isn't a + or -, the it is the overall limit. My book is very good about specifying direction.