is not continuous on , so by a well known theorem, the convergence is not uniform.
Yes, nowThen if we were to fix r>0, is it uniformly convergent at [r, infinity]?
Prove that for every there exists such that
for and for all
Possibly is:Also, there was another part of the problem. the professor wrote something like
He's a messy writer, and i do believe that was what he wrote, but Im not too sure if that fits into the problem at all, or if it even does.