Hi everyone,

I need get the integral of the following expression and I tried to do it the following way. Is this a valid operation?

Any help will be highly appreciated?

Thanks

Printable View

- Nov 16th 2010, 02:28 PMshoebodhIs this a valid operation?
Hi everyone,

I need get the integral of the following expression and I tried to do it the following way. Is this a valid operation?

Any help will be highly appreciated?

Thanks - Nov 16th 2010, 07:12 PMtonio
- Nov 16th 2010, 07:35 PMshoebodh
I am sorry Tonio,

That was a typo, Its suppose to be the upper case Z. But I was wondering, it I could use such chain rule and get the dh/dt and dz/dt out of the integral like that.

Then I have a predefined function of which is x = (1+(ba)^n)^-(1+1/n). So. Now I can differentiate this function w.r.t. a, and then integrate within the limit of (0 to Z).

Is this mathematically legitimate?. I would be grateful If I could get some help in solving this.

Thanks - Nov 17th 2010, 02:39 AMHallsofIvy
- Nov 17th 2010, 04:39 AMshoebodh
Actually they are not function of a. does that allow me to do this operation? And following that, I have to differentiate x wrt a and then integrate it? Can that be done?