Is this a valid operation?

• Nov 16th 2010, 01:28 PM
shoebodh
Is this a valid operation?
Hi everyone,
I need get the integral of the following expression and I tried to do it the following way. Is this a valid operation?
Any help will be highly appreciated?

Thanks
• Nov 16th 2010, 06:12 PM
tonio
Quote:

Originally Posted by shoebodh
Hi everyone,
I need get the integral of the following expression and I tried to do it the following way. Is this a valid operation?
Any help will be highly appreciated?

Thanks

That's weird. The original integral is dz (i.e., we're integrating wrt z), yet z itself appears as upper limit: how's this possible?

Tonio
• Nov 16th 2010, 06:35 PM
shoebodh
I am sorry Tonio,
That was a typo, Its suppose to be the upper case Z. But I was wondering, it I could use such chain rule and get the dh/dt and dz/dt out of the integral like that.
Then I have a predefined function of which is x = (1+(ba)^n)^-(1+1/n). So. Now I can differentiate this function w.r.t. a, and then integrate within the limit of (0 to Z).
Is this mathematically legitimate?. I would be grateful If I could get some help in solving this.

Thanks
• Nov 17th 2010, 01:39 AM
HallsofIvy
Quote:

Originally Posted by shoebodh
Hi everyone,
I need get the integral of the following expression and I tried to do it the following way. Is this a valid operation?
Any help will be highly appreciated?

Thanks

If h and z are functions of a then they cannot be taken outside the integral.
• Nov 17th 2010, 03:39 AM
shoebodh
Actually they are not function of a. does that allow me to do this operation? And following that, I have to differentiate x wrt a and then integrate it? Can that be done?