Originally Posted by

**Vamz** Ok IC. So for

$\displaystyle

\displaystyle \lim_{x \to 1^{+}} ( \displaystyle \frac {1}{\ln x} - \displaystyle \frac {1}{x - 1} ) =

$

It would be the same as: Lim f(x) - Lim f(g)

so for:

$\displaystyle

\lim_{x \to 1^{+}}\frac{1}{lnx} = \infty

$

x becomes really close to one, making ln(x) extremely small. Then 1/rly small = rly big and approaches infinity?

Same with the other term:

[Math]

\displaystyle \lim_{x \to 1^{+}} \frac{1}{x-1} = \infty

[/tex]

because x-1 will approach a super small number, and the reciprocal of that will be a rly big number, approaching infinity.

So, then we have infinity-infinity = 0?

But this appears to be wrong. What is wrong with my reasoning?