Hey guys, need help with a question "Give examples of two functions, f(x) and g(x), such that limx→1f(x) does not exist, limx→1g(x) does not exist, but limx→1(f(x)/g(x))=0."
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Originally Posted by desperatestudent Hey guys, need help with a question "Give examples of two functions, f(x) and g(x), such that limx→1f(x) does not exist, limx→1g(x) does not exist, but limx→1(f(x)/g(x))=0." 1. a and b are real numbers with . 2. Let and . Then the limits and don't exist. 3. You now can close the existing gap such that the limit
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