So, the question asks; If F(x) = x^2sin(π/x), prove that f(0) can be defined in such a way that f becomes continous at x = 0.
I know for continuity you need to prove that the limit F(x) exists. So I used the squeeze theroem and found that the limit as x approaches 0 is 0.
I am having trouble proving that f(0) is defined. I know this is probably a stupid question but I just hit a math road block.
Thanks for your help!
-Sterwine