From the expression...
(1)
... setting instead of You obtain...
(2)
With a little of patience You can apply the now described procedure and find the expression for...
(3)
Kind regards
The product rule states, if and are two differentiable functions, then:
If and are -times differentiable, then Liebniz's rule generalises this to:
Now, the quotient rule states that, if and are two differentiable functions, then:
Perhaps I've misused the word 'inverse' for what I want, but what does this generalise to?