the limit of ln(x) is infinite, so why does dividing it by x make it zero? If anything it should make it 1 because infinite/infinite = 1
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. Since this goes to you can use L'Hospital's Rule. .
oh DUHHHH because infinite/infinite DOES NOT equal 1; it is indeterminate!!!
Originally Posted by RedSwiss the limit of ln(x) is infinite, so why does dividing it by x make it zero? If anything it should make it 1 because infinite/infinite = 1 get that idea out of your head.
Originally Posted by RedSwiss the limit of ln(x) is infinite, so why does dividing it by x make it zero? If anything it should make it 1 because infinite/infinite = 1 Even though both numerator and denominator are growing without bound, the real question is which is growing faster. Also note that for so , Thus, which gives A non L'Hopital way of doing it.
Originally Posted by RedSwiss oh DUHHHH because infinite/infinite DOES NOT equal 1; it is indeterminate!!! Well, I'm glad you said that. It would have sounded harsh if I had said it! Note that ln(x) and x both go to infinity as x goes to infinity. But x goes to infinity faster than ln(x) does.
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