the limit of ln(x) is infinite, so why does dividing it by x make it zero? If anything it should make it 1 because infinite/infinite = 1

Printable View

- August 28th 2010, 08:14 AMRedSwisswhy does the limit of ln(x)/x approach 0???
the limit of ln(x) is infinite, so why does dividing it by x make it zero? If anything it should make it 1 because infinite/infinite = 1

- August 28th 2010, 08:27 AMProve It
.

Since this goes to you can use L'Hospital's Rule.

. - August 28th 2010, 08:29 AMRedSwiss
oh DUHHHH because infinite/infinite DOES NOT equal 1; it is indeterminate!!!

- August 28th 2010, 08:31 AMskeeter
- August 28th 2010, 08:45 AMJester
- August 28th 2010, 10:38 AMHallsofIvy