This problem is very similar to the other thread that I just answered.
I am having difficulty with this question. I think the problem im having is showing how the antiderivative does not exist ( for example what are the requirements needed for it not to exist). The second problem I have is that im not sure how to solve these type of questions when given piecewise functions.
The question states:" show that the function f(x)=x for x less than or equal to 0 and f(x)=1 for greater than 0 has no antiderivative on R. Hint find a potential antiderivative F of f and show that F has no derivative at 0."
Any help would be greatly appreciated
Thanks in advance!
Can you "fix" a constant of integration to fit those two together to give a purported 'anti-derivative' for this function of this problem. Now, try to differentiate that "anti-derivative".