Hi there,
Could anyone give me some tips on how to show for
I have no idea where to start. I expanded it out and you can see that the 1s cancel, but past that I am lost...
Here's another idea. For each, let
denote a random variable which takes the value
with probability
, and the value
otherwise. Suppose moreover that these random variables are independent. Then
is the probability that all of the
take the value
, hence
is the probability that not all of the
take on the value
, i.e. that at least one of them take the value
. This is clearly less than
.