Hi there,
Could anyone give me some tips on how to show for
I have no idea where to start. I expanded it out and you can see that the 1s cancel, but past that I am lost...
Here's another idea. For each , let denote a random variable which takes the value with probability , and the value otherwise. Suppose moreover that these random variables are independent. Then is the probability that all of the take the value , hence is the probability that not all of the take on the value , i.e. that at least one of them take the value . This is clearly less than .