If "F(x) is the cdf of x on [0,) and f(x) is its corresponding pdf" then so the integral is
and its derivative, by the Leibniz rule, is simply .
Hi all, I have to solve the following problem:
Find dV/dt, where:
where F(x) is the cdf of x on [0, ) and f(x) is its corresponding pdf.
My question is can I just use Leibnez rule as one normally would, or does the whole cdf thing complicate matters? My senses tell me its the former.