Hi all, I have to solve the following problem:

Find dV/dt, where:

$\displaystyle \int_0^{t^2} (x+at)dF(x) $ where F(x) is the cdf of x on [0,$\displaystyle \infty $) and f(x) is its corresponding pdf.

My question is can I just use Leibnez rule as one normally would, or does the whole cdf thing complicate matters? My senses tell me its the former.