I get two different solutions for the integral

$\displaystyle \int_0^1 \frac{dx}{x} \ln \left( \frac{1+x}{1-x} \right) $ depending on how I evaluate it. Series expansion gives $\displaystyle \frac{\pi^2}{4}$ while Mathematica gives $\displaystyle 1+2 \ln 2$ as an analytical as well as a numerical solution. On the other hand, Wolfram Alpha also gives $\displaystyle \frac{\pi^2}{4}$. I'm thinking that there must be some problem with singularities and/or (non)uniform convergence of the Taylor series for the logarithm.

Any thoughts will be much appreciated.