Hi,
There's a theorem in my book that states the following;
Letbe a real-valued function, defined and continuous on a bounded closed interval
of the real line. Assume, further, that
; then, there exists
in
such that
.
I feel quite comfortable with that theorem. Later on in the book the authors write:
"An alternative sufficient condition for the existence of a solution to the equationis arrived at by rewriting it in the equivalent form
where
is a certain real-valued function, defined and continuous on
. The problem of solving the equation
is converted into one of finding
such that
."
Now that I do not understand. I don't really see how x-g(x)=0 is equivalent to f(x)=0. Could someone please explain this to me, or point me to some resources?
Thanks.


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