Hi all! Is the following always true for all integrable functions f(x) and g(x): INT (a to b) ( f(x) + g(x) ) dx = INT (a to b) f(x) dx + INT (a to b) g(x) dx? Thanks.
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Yes!
Originally Posted by Also sprach Zarathustra Yes! Thanks bro. One more question? How do I post using Latex. Is there a thread that teahes Latex. Thanks again.
http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-help/latex-help/ has two stickies that should have mostly everything you need from LaTeX in this forum! Good luck.
Integration is linear:
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