Hi all! Is the following always true for all integrable functions f(x) and g(x):

INT (a to b) ( f(x) + g(x) ) dx = INT (a to b) f(x) dx + INT (a to b) g(x) dx?

Thanks.

Printable View

- July 14th 2010, 10:29 AMpollardrho06Definite Integral Property
Hi all! Is the following always true for all integrable functions f(x) and g(x):

INT (a to b) ( f(x) + g(x) ) dx = INT (a to b) f(x) dx + INT (a to b) g(x) dx?

Thanks. - July 14th 2010, 10:31 AMAlso sprach Zarathustra
Yes!

- July 14th 2010, 10:34 AMpollardrho06
- July 14th 2010, 02:53 PMDefunkt
http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-help/latex-help/ has two stickies that should have mostly everything you need from LaTeX in this forum!

Good luck. - July 14th 2010, 03:54 PMTheCoffeeMachineYes!
Integration is linear: