I am supposed to find this limit without L'Hopital's rule. I have tried multiplying the numerator and the denominator with (1/(1-x))+1, and I've looked for ways to factorize, without getting anywere. Would appreciate any help! =)
And something more...
I notice that you have posts already and yet you haven't try write math with Latex, I strongly recommend you to try it!
You can start learning this here, on this site there is a forum about Latex...
...but the best way I think is by double-clicking on the code, you can try it with my post above!
Thanks alot! I tried using Latex for this next problem, but I kept getting errors. I will have to start using it on easier expressions first I think... Anyway, in this problem, is it possible for me to go from step 2 to step 3 like I did here? In that case, the rest of the problem is easy.
That will indeed work! I've never seen anyone using the defintion of the derivative in solving limit problems like that, haha. But if I do it like I did, then it will also simplify to 1 times cos (pi/6) which is what you got. I'm just not sure if I can rewrite it like that. It would be nice to know for future problems.