You are mistaken. The "normalising" constant is chosen to "normalise" the probability function- to make the probability of getting any number whatsoever (and we must getsomenumber) equal to 1. It has nothing to with the derivative but is equal to an integral. It is one over

I've looked at the rules for taking derivatives and seem to be unable to get this as an answer for the derivative of the exponential.

In specific, I fail to see where the square root and pi come from..

I was hoping someone here could give me a clue. Many thanks in advance!

Arthur

Can anyone give me