for
The last term is monotonic decreasing so we can use the integral test... hmmm...
still thinking about this...
Hello, I have a question:
Does it converge? If so, does it uniformly converge?
Thought of turning the ln into two different ln's, but I really can't find a way to prove a convergence of anything here...
Can you please help me?
Thanks
The term is a nonsense for n=1 , so that the series probably is...
(1)
The convergence of the 'infinite sum' (1) is equivalent to the convergence of the infinite product...
(2)
... and that is guaranted by the convergence of the series...
(3)
... which is true for any value of x. The series (3) converges uniformely in any finite interval of the x and the same holds for the series (1)...
Kind regards