Hi,

This is my first post. I have a slight problem. I know how to solve this exercise but there's something different here :/.

Ok, so i need to demonstrate this inequality by applying Lagrange's theorem on [k, k+1] interval, i have the solution in my book but the theorem i know is f ' (c) = [f(k+1) - f(k)]/(k + 1 - k), instead the book says its the other way around f(k) - f(k+1) ... etc

So if some1 can solve this problem for me from scratch ... i'd be grateful.

SOLVED