I'm not sure about the 'n'..
Thank you.
Hello, here's the problem:
Let be C a curve in Riemmann Surface log(z) that goes from z=1 (in the log(1)=0 sheet) to z=1 turning around z=0 'n' times. Calculate:
I have tried to calculate in this way:
so
thus:
As r=1: (I know I could have simplified before)
What do you think? Is it right?
Thank you.
Everytime you go one time around, the integral is . You could show this piece-wise for each circuit, or I would analytically extend the antiderivative and write:
it's meant to look controversial just to get people thinking
I do believe an argument for it's validity could be made however.