can someone help me to prove that:

if y(t)> 0 and increasing function then:

y(t) tends to infinite as t tends to infinite ??!

thanks in advance,,

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- Apr 30th 2007, 02:14 PMmiss_lolittaUrgent!!
can someone help me to prove that:

if y(t)> 0 and increasing function then:

y(t) tends to infinite as t tends to infinite ??!

thanks in advance,, - Apr 30th 2007, 03:36 PMPlato
- Apr 30th 2007, 03:44 PMTD!
I deleted my stupid reply, amazing how one can be deceived by a false statement :D

- May 1st 2007, 09:56 AMmiss_lolitta
just!!i wona to tell u that :

y(t) is not a boundedhttp://www.bigsmileys.com/images/def...4/wow-girl.gif

thans for all - May 1st 2007, 10:11 AMTD!
Now that makes more sense and it would've made my "proof" valid.

So we have y(t) > 0, increasing and unbounded. For the function*not*to diverge (go to infinity), it would have to converge to a real value or oscillate. It cannot oscillate since it's increasing, y(b) > y(a) for every b > a. It can't converge to a real value (say L) either, since that would make it bounded (by L).