how can we prove ln(1/a) = -ln(a)

by using fundermental theory of calculus?

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- May 6th 2010, 04:02 AM #1

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- May 6th 2010, 05:04 AM #2

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- May 6th 2010, 05:05 AM #3

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- May 6th 2010, 04:43 PM #4

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Me too it is a similar problem that brought me to this site. Essentially ShaXar wants to find the intersection of the curves exp(x) and 1/x or the curves 1/x and ln(x), i.e. where they intersect but it is not so simple.

How on earth can one solve such an ordinary and seemingly so simple a problem, anyone ???

- May 7th 2010, 03:09 AM #5

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If , then so x= W(1) where W(x) is the "Lambert W function", Lambert W function - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia.

- May 7th 2010, 10:08 AM #6

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