how can we prove ln(1/a) = -ln(a)

by using fundermental theory of calculus?

Results 1 to 6 of 6

- May 6th 2010, 03:02 AM #1

- Joined
- Apr 2010
- Posts
- 2

- May 6th 2010, 04:04 AM #2

- Joined
- Nov 2005
- From
- someplace
- Posts
- 14,972
- Thanks
- 5

- May 6th 2010, 04:05 AM #3

- Joined
- Oct 2009
- Posts
- 4,261
- Thanks
- 2

- May 6th 2010, 03:43 PM #4

- Joined
- May 2010
- Posts
- 1

Me too it is a similar problem that brought me to this site. Essentially ShaXar wants to find the intersection of the curves exp(x) and 1/x or the curves 1/x and ln(x), i.e. where they intersect but it is not so simple.

How on earth can one solve such an ordinary and seemingly so simple a problem, anyone ???

- May 7th 2010, 02:09 AM #5

- Joined
- Apr 2005
- Posts
- 18,949
- Thanks
- 2738

If , then so x= W(1) where W(x) is the "Lambert W function", Lambert W function - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia.

- May 7th 2010, 09:08 AM #6

- Joined
- Nov 2005
- From
- someplace
- Posts
- 14,972
- Thanks
- 5