This question seems fairly logical if you think about it as the two functions must intersect. How would you go about proving it? .
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Originally Posted by acevipa This question seems fairly logical if you think about it as the two functions must intersect. How would you go about proving it? . Look at h(x)= f(x)- g(x).
Originally Posted by HallsofIvy Look at h(x)= f(x)- g(x). Sorry, I still don't quite understand.
What is the sign of h(a)? What is the sign of h(b)?
Originally Posted by Defunkt What is the sign of h(a)? What is the sign of h(b)? Ok I see, so h(c)=0 as intercepts the x-axis. But how would you go about proving it still?
Would you say
Yep, that is exactly the intermediate value theorem: Intermediate value theorem - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia Note, though, that since you have a weak inequality, it is possible that ie. or .
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