Find the Taylor series for the function f(x) = 1/((1-x)^2) valid for x near zero, using the fact that 1/(1-x) = the sum from k=0 to infinity of x^k.
I'm stuck. Please help me! Thanks.
When I took the derivative, I got my function and when I took the derivative of the sum, I got f(x)=sum from K=0 to infinity of (K)x^K, but it seems like sum from K=0 to infinity of (1+K)x^K better describes my function. Is that the answer? Is it considered a Taylor Series when you don't write out all the terms, but write it as an infinite sum instead?