Thread: even/odd function's derivative is odd/even

Hi

For all x in (-r,r)
-f'(-x) = f'(x)
(f(-x))' = (f(x))'

Integrating gives
f(-x) = f(x) + K

To find K we take x=0
f(0) = f(0) + K
K = 0

And finally
f(-x) = f(x)

is there any way to prove without using integration?

i think mean value theorum might work...

You could use the contrapositive of your original statement:

You're trying to show that: If is odd on , then is even on .

The contrapositive would be: If is not even on , then is not odd on .

Both of these statements are logically equivalent.

Use the chain rule: for any function f(x), with u= -x. That is, .

If f is an even function, then f(-x)= f(x) so and that previous equation becomes f'(x)= -f'(-x) which is the same as -f'(x)= f'(-x) showing that f'(x) is an odd function.

If f is an odd function, then f(-x)= -f(x) so and that previous equation becomes -f'(x)= -f'(-x) which is the same as f'(x)= f'(-x) showing that f'(x) is an even function.