Could someone prove this by the mean value theorem: -ln(1-x) < x/(1-x) for 0 < x< 1 I got really close to it..
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Use the mean value to prove Napier’s inequality: if then . Then let .
why do you let a=1-x? not a=x
Originally Posted by Monster32432421 why do you let a=1-x? not a=x Because gives us what we want. But does not.
(Already seen 2 posters posting the same question, interesting)
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