Could someone prove this by the mean value theorem:

-ln(1-x) < x/(1-x) for 0 < x< 1

I got really close to it..

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- April 25th 2010, 10:19 AMMonster32432421Mean Value Theorem proof
Could someone prove this by the mean value theorem:

-ln(1-x) < x/(1-x) for 0 < x< 1

I got really close to it.. - April 25th 2010, 12:00 PMPlato
Use the mean value to prove Napier’s inequality: if then .

Then let . - April 26th 2010, 03:54 AMMonster32432421
why do you let a=1-x? not a=x

- April 26th 2010, 08:03 AMPlato
- April 26th 2010, 08:30 AMrebghb
(Already seen 2 posters posting the same question, interesting) :D