find the second derivative (0) I get two different answer, one where i expand the brackets out, and one where i just make 1-q = p
Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+
$\displaystyle \left( \frac{1}{f} \right) ' = - \left( \frac{f'}{f^2} \right) $ Let $\displaystyle f = 1 - qe^{it}$
What reason would you have for setting 1- q= p?
Originally Posted by HallsofIvy What reason would you have for setting 1- q= p? its a stats module, probabiliity
View Tag Cloud