I would like to know if my thinking on the problem is correct. I need to find the area between the circles $\displaystyle r = sin(\theta)$ and $\displaystyle r = cos(\theta)$

After I graphed the 2 circles I looked at them and realized that the area between them is symmetric so I only need to find one half of it and multiply it by 2. So I figured that if I just took the circle $\displaystyle r = sin(\theta)$ and did the integral $\displaystyle 2* \frac12 \int_0 ^\frac\pi4 sin^2(\theta)d\theta$ I would get the area bounded between the two circles. In the end I got $\displaystyle \frac\pi8 - \frac14$

Could someone tell me if I am correct. Thank you.