I don't understand how to use the squeeze theorem at all. The problem is: Use the squeeze theorem to determine what an=(ncosn)/(n^2) converges to?
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Originally Posted by Amberosia32 I don't understand how to use the squeeze theorem at all. The problem is: Use the squeeze theorem to determine what an=(ncosn)/(n^2) converges to? $\displaystyle a_n = \frac{n \cos n}{n^2} = \frac{\cos n}{n}$ Since $\displaystyle -1 \le \cos n \le 1$ then $\displaystyle \frac{-1}{n} \le \frac{\cos n}{n} \le \frac{1}{n}$. Now take limits.
Originally Posted by Danny $\displaystyle a_n = \frac{n \cos n}{n^2} = \frac{\cos n}{n}$ Since $\displaystyle -1 \le \cos n \le 1$ then $\displaystyle \frac{-1}{n} \le \frac{\cos n}{n} \le \frac{1}{n}$. Now take limits. Thank you. I thought it would be much more complicated.
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