This may seem stupid but...
if $\displaystyle z = x + iy $
and i let U = x and V = y
$\displaystyle Ux= 1, Uy = 0 $ and $\displaystyle Vy = 1, Vx = 0 $
can i say $\displaystyle Uy = -Vx $?
i.e. the function f(z) = z is analytic
This may seem stupid but...
if $\displaystyle z = x + iy $
and i let U = x and V = y
$\displaystyle Ux= 1, Uy = 0 $ and $\displaystyle Vy = 1, Vx = 0 $
can i say $\displaystyle Uy = -Vx $?
i.e. the function f(z) = z is analytic