Hello,
Note that the function is an odd function. And since it's integrated over an interval that is symmetric to 0, the value of the integral is just 0 !
No. The reason this integral is zero is not because the function is odd. If that were the case, then the Cauchy distribution would have a mean equal to zero ....
Of related interest: http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...ancel-out.html