It has come to my knowledge that the Riemann-hypothesis is disprooved. Is this true? If yes, how does this impact the proof for Fermat's Last Theorem presented by Andrew Wiles ?
Thank in advance.
Somewhat. I was watching a documentary on Fermat's Last Theorem and this got me searching the net. I have always wondered why mathematicians think that Fermat did not have a proof for his theorem and whether the proof given by Wiles is correct. After searching the net I came across a chinese professor in Mathematics who not only claimed that the he had disproved the Riemann-hypothesis but that the proof given by Wiles for Fermat's Last Theorem was wrong.
Yes, his name is Jiang Chun-Xuan. Has any mathematician read his work and scrutinized it? It seems that his works were met with silence when they first appeared several years back (before Wiles presented his proof).