Riemann-hypothesis

Hello,

It has come to my knowledge that the Riemann-hypothesis is disprooved. Is this true? If yes, how does this impact the proof for Fermat's Last Theorem presented by Andrew Wiles ?

Thank in advance.

Do you have literature on this?

Hello,

Somewhat. I was watching a documentary on Fermat's Last Theorem and this got me searching the net. I have always wondered why mathematicians think that Fermat did not have a proof for his theorem and whether the proof given by Wiles is correct. After searching the net I came across a chinese professor in Mathematics who not only claimed that the he had disproved the Riemann-hypothesis but that the proof given by Wiles for Fermat's Last Theorem was wrong.

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Originally Posted by surjective

Hello,

Somewhat. I was watching a documentary on Fermat's Last Theorem and this got be searching the net. I have always wondered why mathematicians think that Fermat did not have a proof for his theorem and whether the proof given by Wiles is correct. After searching the net I came across a chinese professor in Mathematics who not only claimed that the he had dispropved the Riemann-hypothesis but that the proof given by Wiles for Fermat's Last Theorem was wrong.

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To my knowledge this is incorrect. I assume you are talking about Jiang?

Yes, his name is Jiang Chun-Xuan. Has any mathematician read his work and scrutinized it? It seems that his works were met with silence when they first appeared several years back (before Wiles presented his proof).

Here's a discussion (scroll down a bit for more).

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Originally Posted by o_O

Here's a discussion (scroll down a bit for more).

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I really like Terry Tao. He's very personable.