Hello,

It has come to my knowledge that the Riemann-hypothesis is disprooved. Is this true? If yes, how does this impact the proof for Fermat's Last Theorem presented by Andrew Wiles ?

Thank in advance.

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- Mar 16th 2010, 08:38 PMsurjectiveRiemann-hypothesis
Hello,

It has come to my knowledge that the Riemann-hypothesis is disprooved. Is this true? If yes, how does this impact the proof for Fermat's Last Theorem presented by Andrew Wiles ?

Thank in advance. - Mar 16th 2010, 08:46 PMAnonymous1
Do you have literature on this?

- Mar 16th 2010, 08:50 PMsurjectiveRiemann-hypothesis
Hello,

Somewhat. I was watching a documentary on Fermat's Last Theorem and this got me searching the net. I have always wondered why mathematicians think that Fermat did not have a proof for his theorem and whether the proof given by Wiles is correct. After searching the net I came across a chinese professor in Mathematics who not only claimed that the he had disproved the Riemann-hypothesis but that the proof given by Wiles for Fermat's Last Theorem was wrong. - Mar 16th 2010, 08:53 PMDrexel28
- Mar 16th 2010, 08:55 PMsurjectiveRiemann-hypothesis
Yes, his name is Jiang Chun-Xuan. Has any mathematician read his work and scrutinized it? It seems that his works were met with silence when they first appeared several years back (before Wiles presented his proof).

- Mar 16th 2010, 09:38 PMo_O
Here's a discussion (scroll down a bit for more).

- Mar 16th 2010, 09:47 PMDrexel28