because the f'(x) of lnx = 1/x so lnx^2 i think would be 1/x^2
f'(x) of (x^2)+1 is 2x
but, when i put 0 into the function... everything goes very wrong.
I tried taking the next derivative but that didn't work very well either.
I could use some ideas on what to do at this point.
edit: realized it was infinity and not 0.. i dont know how to delete the thread but as of this point i'm retrying the problem