Why is the answer using a Riemann Sum different from the answer using integration?
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Originally Posted by ronaldo0077 Why is the answer using a Riemann Sum different from the answer using integration? for a finite number of partitions, a Riemann sum is an approximation for the value of the definite integral.
Isnt a Riemann Sum more of an exact answer
Originally Posted by ronaldo0077 Isnt a Riemann Sum more of an exact answer only if there are an infinite number of partitions ... making it equal to a definite integral.
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