Originally Posted by

**JackRyder** The function f(x) = sin(pi*x) has zero at every integer. If -1 < a < 0 and 2 < b < 3, show that it converges to 0 if a + b < 2.

So p1 = (a1 + b1) / 2 for those restrictions which is (-1 + 2) / 2 = 1/2 and (-1 + 3) / 2 = 1 and 1/2 < p1 < 1.

1 > f(p1) > 0 so a2 = a1 = a and b2 = p1.

I found out that the solution is p = 0 because it is the only zero of f in [a2, b2] but how do I actually get it? What do I choose for b2 = p1 and a2 = a? Since both of them are a range. -1 < a2 < 0 and 1/2 < b2 < 1. I'd understand it if I started off with a = something and b = something

p = p2 = (a2 + b2) / 2 = ? = 0.