there $\displaystyle ln \frac{f}{p} = - \frac{1}{RT} \int_{0}^{p}(\frac{RT}{p}-V)dp$
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Originally Posted by LeChat there $\displaystyle ln \frac{f}{p} = - \frac{1}{RT} \int_{0}^{p}(\frac{RT}{p}-V)dp$ Can you explain this more clearly? CB
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