..obviously one can use integration by parts to attempt to solve any integral not just those with funky products in the intergrand so with that in mind i was trying to solve the integral,
using integration by parts after i had already noticed that direct substituion of u=ln(x) would do the trick.
But with the following choices this is what I'm getting:
Let f(x) = , g(x) =
As you can see, this is nonsensical. Mr F says: No it's not. All it says is that the difference between the two integrals is a constant.
Would someone please tell me where I'm erring.
The correct result is