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I'm feeling an induction proof coming on. It's not like they are infinite sums. You won't have to worry about convergence.
Maybe I'm wrong.
No, completely right. Induction on n and the "sum rule": (f(x)+ g(x))'= f'(x)+ g'(x).
I'm not sure how to proceed with induction.
Because , what needs to be proven is that . The same goes to .
Last edited by BraveHeart; February 10th 2010 at 10:35 PM.
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