If and are funtions of , does equal ?
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Originally Posted by wglmb If and are funtions of , does equal ? No. While the first derivative can be "treated like" a fraction, the second derivative cannot. For example, take and . Then , , and . Now it is easy to see that so . But while .
Thanks a lot
Originally Posted by wglmb If and are funtions of , does equal ? To find you would need to calculate .
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