Can someone double-check my work here? Thanks, if you can. Put x to the denominator to use L'Hopital's rule, etc. Applied chain rules, etc. Thus, if x goes to infinity, the above is sin(0) = 0. Final Answer: Zero
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Yes, it's okay, but you don't need that rule, you can turn that limit into a known one with a simple substitution.
Oh, really? What is this substitution?
tx=1 so itequals to lim [(1-cost)/t] t->0
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