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[note: also under discussion in s.o.s. math board]

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- January 21st 2010, 05:10 PMkingwinnerMean value theorem & Cauchy sequence
http://sites.google.com/site/asdfasdf23135/ra10.JPG

[note: also under discussion in s.o.s. math board] - January 21st 2010, 05:51 PMDrexel28
- January 21st 2010, 08:09 PMkingwinner
But when you write the interval [a(n),a(n+1)] and apply the mean value theorem, it is implictly assumed that a(n)<a(n+1), which is not true for our sequence, e.g. a0=0, a1=1, a2=0.54, a3=0.86,...

How can we remove the assumption a(n)<a(n+1) while reaching the same conclusion that |a(n+2)-a(n+1)| ≤ 0.85|a(n+1)-a(n)|?

thanks. - January 21st 2010, 08:13 PMDrexel28
I do leave holes on purpose you know? Do you not think I didn't realize this. You are supposed to do some of this. This is to help

*you*learn.

But, I'll give you a hint. Does it matter which is bigger than the other? Clearly it does if we want to define an interval in the conventional way, but does it matter if we have the itneval I gave you or the reverse one? Is the result any different? - January 22nd 2010, 03:13 PMkingwinner
OK, I got it now.

Actually I got confused before about the "for ALL n" part in "a(n+1)>a(n)__for ALL n__" . I thought we need montone sequences, but acutally we don't.

Given any two consecutive terms a(n) and a(n+1), either a(n)<=a(n_1) or a(n)>a(n+1), and in either case the MVT gives the result. Done. - January 24th 2010, 01:51 AMkingwinner