Hiya,

I'm having a bit of trouble figuing out the fourier series for a function f(x) defined as 1 if 0 < x < pi, -1 if -pi < x < 0.

The problem I'm having is that $\displaystyle \int$ f(x) dx from -pi to pi equals 0, therefore all of the fourier coefficients are 0. Am I doing something wrong?

Thanks