sub to y(0) = 1 and y'(0) = 0 answer is but cant see how they did it,,,some version of inverse laplace?
Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+
Originally Posted by i_zz_y_ill sub to y(0) = 1 and y'(0) = 0 answer is but cant see how they did it,,,some version of inverse laplace? First, find the image of the equation by Laplace: So, you have Finally you have
View Tag Cloud