if p=q-1. and and for k=1 than how by using difference equation theory is a G.S ? I can just about see where you get but not thanks
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Some observations Originally Posted by oxrigby if p=q-1. and and for k=1 Originally Posted by oxrigby ? I can just about see where you get but not thanks
still makes no sense,,,why q/p? implies x=1. i.e how does x =q/p?
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