I have been trying to find a proof for the following summation identity.
I have found that we can prove this using the differentiation, but was wondering if there is another way to prove that, i.e., without using the differentiation
I have been trying to find a proof for the following summation identity.
I have found that we can prove this using the differentiation, but was wondering if there is another way to prove that, i.e., without using the differentiation
Binomial expansion of (1-x)^(-2) followed by a bit of simplification should do it.