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About LinkBacksI have been trying to find a proof for the following summation identity.
I have found that we can prove this using the differentiation, but was wondering if there is another way to prove that, i.e., without using the differentiation
I have been trying to find a proof for the following summation identity.
I have found that we can prove this using the differentiation, but was wondering if there is another way to prove that, i.e., without using the differentiation
Binomial expansion of (1-x)^(-2) followed by a bit of simplification should do it.Originally Posted by led5v
I have been trying to find a proof for the following summation identity.
I have found that we can prove this using the differentiation, but was wondering if there is another way to prove that, i.e., without using the differentiation
RonL
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